Polity and Governance Prelims PYQs, 2022 to 2026

1. UPSC Prelims 2026, Question 51
   Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.
   Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X’s actions?
   1. Esprit de corps
   2. Equity
   3. Accountability
   4. Delegation
2. UPSC Prelims 2026, Question 52
   In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses.
   As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.
   Consider the following statements with reference to the above:
   1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
   2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
   3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform, including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives, to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
   4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.
   Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?
   1. 1, 3 and 4 only
   2. 2, 3 and 4 only
   3. 1 and 2 only
   4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. UPSC Prelims 2026, Question 53
   Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project, a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city’s reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust.
   What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?
   1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
   2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project’s integrity
   3. Propose a ‘limited disclosure’ to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   1. 1 and 2 only
   2. 3 only
   3. 2 and 3 only
   4. 1, 2 and 3
4. UPSC Prelims 2026, Question 54
   ‘X’ was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term ‘law’ as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. ‘X’ explained that the meaning of the term ‘law’ in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. ‘Y’ pointed out that the term ‘law’ in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which ‘X’ was not convinced.
   Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:
   1. ‘X’ is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.
   2. The view of ‘Y’ that ‘law’ included custom is not correct.
   3. The views of both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are correct.
   4. The view of only ‘Y’ is correct.
5. UPSC Prelims 2026, Question 55
   Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:
   1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the ‘Constitution of India’.
   2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
   3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.
   Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
   1. All three statements are correct.
   2. There is no correct statement.
   3. There are two correct statements that include statement 3.
   4. There is only one correct statement.
6. UPSC Prelims 2026, Question 56
   Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?
   1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
   2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains: built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
   3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   1. 1 and 2
   2. 2 only
   3. 1 and 3
   4. 1 only
7. UPSC Prelims 2026, Question 57
   Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:
   1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
   2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
   3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
   Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
   1. There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
   2. There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.
   3. There is only one correct statement.
   4. All three statements are correct.
8. UPSC Prelims 2026, Question 58
   Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:
   1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
   2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
   3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.
   Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
   1. All the three statements are correct.
   2. There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
   3. There is only one correct statement.
   4. There is no correct statement.
9. UPSC Prelims 2026, Question 59
   Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:
   1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
   2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
   3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
   4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.
   Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
   1. There are four correct statements.
   2. There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.
   3. There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.
   4. There is no correct statement.
10. UPSC Prelims 2026, Question 62
    Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?
    1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
    2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
    3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.
    Select the answer using the code given below:
    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 only
    4. 2 only
11. UPSC Prelims 2026, Question 63
    With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:

    Sl. No.	Organisation	Function	Controlling Union Ministry
    1.	Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB)	To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies	Ministry of Home Affairs
    2.	Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)	To investigate complex corporate frauds	Ministry of Finance
    3.	Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)	To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy	Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension

    In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?
    1. 1
    2. 2
    3. 3
    4. None
12. UPSC Prelims 2026, Question 74
    Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?
    1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
    2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
    3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.
    Select the answer using the code given below:
    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 2 and 3
13. UPSC Prelims 2025, Question 3
    With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:

    	Organization	Some of its functions	It works under
    I.	Directorate of Enforcement	Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018	Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
    II.	Directorate of Revenue Intelligence	Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
    III.	Directorate General of Systems and Data Management	Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

    In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All the three
    4. None
14. UPSC Prelims 2025, Question 51
    With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
    I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
    II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
    III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    1. I and II only
    2. II and III only
    3. I and III only
    4. I, II and III
15. UPSC Prelims 2025, Question 53
    With reference to India, consider the following:
    I. The Inter-State Council
    II. The National Security Council
    III. Zonal Councils
    How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All the three
    4. None
16. UPSC Prelims 2025, Question 54
    Consider the following statements:
    I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
    II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
17. UPSC Prelims 2025, Question 55
    Consider the following pairs:

    	Provision in the Constitution of India	Stated under
    I.	Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State	The Directive Principles of the State Policy
    II.	Valuing and preserving the rich heritage of our composite culture	The Fundamental Duties
    III.	Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories	The Fundamental Rights

    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All the three
    4. None
18. UPSC Prelims 2025, Question 56
    Consider the following statements:
    With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule
    I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration
    II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
19. UPSC Prelims 2025, Question 57
    With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

    	Organization	Union Ministry
    I.	The National Automotive Board	Ministry of Commerce and Industry
    II.	The Coir Board	Ministry of Heavy Industries
    III.	The National Centre for Trade Information	Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All the three
    4. None
20. UPSC Prelims 2025, Question 58
    Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
    I. List I—Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
    II. Extent of the executive power of a State
    III. Conditions of the Governor’s office
    For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
    1. I and II only
    2. II and III only
    3. I and III only
    4. I, II and III
21. UPSC Prelims 2025, Question 59
    With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
    I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
    II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
    III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    1. I and II only
    2. II and III only
    3. I and III only
    4. I, II and III
22. UPSC Prelims 2025, Question 66
    Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
    I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
    II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
    III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
    IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    1. I, II and III
    2. I, II and IV
    3. I, III and IV
    4. II, III and IV
23. UPSC Prelims 2025, Question 86
    Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:
    I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
    II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
24. UPSC Prelims 2025, Question 87
    Consider the following statements:
    I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
    II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
    III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    1. I and II only
    2. II and III only
    3. I and III only
    4. I, II and III
25. UPSC Prelims 2025, Question 88
    Consider the following statements:
    I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
    II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
26. UPSC Prelims 2025, Question 89
    Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
    Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
    1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
    2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
    3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
    4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
27. UPSC Prelims 2025, Question 91
    Consider the following statements:
    I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
    II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
    III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.
    Which of the statements given above are not correct?
    1. I and II only
    2. II and III only
    3. I and III only
    4. I, II and III
28. UPSC Prelims 2025, Question 98
    Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
    I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
    II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
    III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
    IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. III only
    2. II and III
    3. I and IV
    4. None of the above statements is correct
29. UPSC Prelims 2024, Question 61
    Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?
    1. C. Rajagopalachari
    2. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
    3. T.T. Krishnamachari
    4. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
30. UPSC Prelims 2024, Question 66
    As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:
    1. Addition
    2. Variation
    3. Repeal
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
31. UPSC Prelims 2024, Question 68
    Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?
    1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
    2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
    3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
    4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.
    Select the answer using the code given below:
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. 1, 3 and 4
32. UPSC Prelims 2024, Question 70
    The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
    1. Governor of the Constituent State
    2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
    3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
    4. The Home Minister of India
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 1, 3 and 4 only
    3. 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
33. UPSC Prelims 2024, Question 71
    How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?
    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. Four
34. UPSC Prelims 2024, Question 72
    The Constitution (71^st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?
    1. Konkani
    2. Manipuri
    3. Nepali
    4. Maithili
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 1, 2 and 4
    3. 1, 3 and 4
    4. 2, 3 and 4
35. UPSC Prelims 2024, Question 74
    Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
    1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
    2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
    3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
    Select the answer using the code given below:
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
36. UPSC Prelims 2024, Question 75
    Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
    1. Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
    2. Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
    3. Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
    4. Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.
37. UPSC Prelims 2024, Question 76
    Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?
    1. Article 15
    2. Article 16
    3. Article 19
    4. Article 21
38. UPSC Prelims 2024, Question 80
    Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
    1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
    2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
    3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
    Select the answer using the code given below:
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
39. UPSC Prelims 2024, Question 81
    Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:
    1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18^th Lok Sabha.
    2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
    3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1 and 3 only
40. UPSC Prelims 2024, Question 83
    A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:
    1. a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
    2. the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
    3. the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
    4. the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.
41. UPSC Prelims 2024, Question 84
    Consider the following statements:
    1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
    2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
42. UPSC Prelims 2024, Question 93
    With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
    While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration
    1. He/She shall not preside.
    2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
    3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
43. UPSC Prelims 2024, Question 94
    With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
    1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
    2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
    3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 3 only
44. UPSC Prelims 2024, Question 95
    With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
    1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
    2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India proroguing the House which is in session.
    3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 3 only
45. UPSC Prelims 2023, Question 31
    In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?
    1. The principle of natural justice
    2. The procedure established by law
    3. Fair application of law
    4. Equality before law
46. UPSC Prelims 2023, Question 32
    Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
    Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
47. UPSC Prelims 2023, Question 33
    Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?
    1. It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
    2. It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
    3. It defines and limits the powers of government.
    4. It secures social justice, social equality and social security.
48. UPSC Prelims 2023, Question 35
    Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:
    1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
    2. The National Human Rights Commission
    3. The National Law Commission
    4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
    How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
49. UPSC Prelims 2023, Question 36
    Consider the following statements:
    1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
    2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
    3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.
    How many of the above statements are correct?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
50. UPSC Prelims 2023, Question 37
    With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
    1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
    2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
    3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
    How many of the above statements are correct?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
51. UPSC Prelims 2023, Question 38
    Consider the following statements:
    Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’
    1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
    2. hunting is not allowed in such area
    3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
    4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices
    How many of the above statements are correct?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
52. UPSC Prelims 2023, Question 39
    With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements:
    1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
    2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
    3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
    How many of the above statements are correct?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
53. UPSC Prelims 2023, Question 40
    Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
    Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
54. UPSC Prelims 2023, Question 75
    Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
    Statement-II: Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
55. UPSC Prelims 2023, Question 77
    Consider the following statements:
    1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
    2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
    3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
    How many of the above statements are correct?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
56. UPSC Prelims 2023, Question 80
    Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:
    1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
    2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
    3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
    4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
    How many of the above statements are correct?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
57. UPSC Prelims 2023, Question 84
    Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:
    Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm.
    Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
58. UPSC Prelims 2023, Question 85
    Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:
    Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
    Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
59. UPSC Prelims 2023, Question 91
    With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:
    1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
    2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
    3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
    How many of the above statements are correct?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
60. UPSC Prelims 2023, Question 92
    With reference to India, consider the following pairs:
    (Action : The Act under which it is covered)
    1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms : The Official Secrets Act, 1923
    2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties : The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
    3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others : The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019
    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
61. UPSC Prelims 2022, Question 11
    Consider the following statements:
    1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
    2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
    3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
    4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1, 2 and 4
    3. 3 and 4 only
    4. 3 only
62. UPSC Prelims 2022, Question 12
    With reference to India, consider the following statements:
    1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
    2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
63. UPSC Prelims 2022, Question 13
    Consider the following statements:
    1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
    2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
    3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
64. UPSC Prelims 2022, Question 14
    Consider the following statements:
    1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
    2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
65. UPSC Prelims 2022, Question 15
    Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
    1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
    2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
    3. To impeach the President of India
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 3 only
66. UPSC Prelims 2022, Question 16
    With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
    1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
    2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
67. UPSC Prelims 2022, Question 17
    Consider the following statements:
    1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
    2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
68. UPSC Prelims 2022, Question 18
    With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:
    1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
    2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
    3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
69. UPSC Prelims 2022, Question 20
    With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
    1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
    2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
    3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
    4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 1, 2 and 3
    3. 3 and 4 only
    4. 2 and 4 only
70. UPSC Prelims 2022, Question 73
    If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
    1. This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
    2. This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
    3. This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
    4. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

Take the timed test above to see the answers and explanations.